Through Matthew mentions only the disciples of John as having made this enquiry, the words of Mark rather seem to imply that some other persons spoke of others, that is, the guests spoke concerning the disciples of John and the Pharisees - this is still more evident from Luke [ref. Luke 5:33]; why then does Matthew here say, “Then came unto him the disciples of John,” unless that they were there among other guests, all of whom with one consent put this objection to Him?
Reproduced in full. Translation: Oxford 1841 (Newman), public domain (Public domain).